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Roughly the same way King Charles III is the head of state for the United Kingdom while Rishi Sunak is the head of government.


As far as I understand, King Charles exists for the purposes of being a tourist attraction, and has no power. Was it the same with the Shah?

If a monarch can overrule the “head of government”, then the head of government is not really the head, right?


No, that's not correct. The king of England has the right of Consent (as far as I understand, King's consent to bills is required), along with the veto right.

That's the idea of a functional constitutional monarchy: the long-reigning monarch counterweights the short-governing government.


> As far as I understand, King Charles exists for the purposes of being a tourist attraction, and has no power.

No, the monarchy has veto power over parliament, and has secretly used the threat of it to shape British law. Apparently most new legislation is run by the ruling monarch's office to make any changes they'd like before it hits the parliament floor for debate. https://www.theguardian.com/uk-news/2021/feb/08/royals-vette...


The Shah needed the military to help him remove the head of government in 1953. He was technically at the top, but really the prime minister held more power until the coup

King Charles has little actual power, but a ton of theoretical power. If he somehow convinced the military to back him (and he would probably need all of NATO's support) he could do whatever he wanted in the UK too.




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