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Why would it be unlikely that the person committing fraud is under the influence? There's no reason to assume that.


Because they know that a cop is about to show up, is my guess.


I read that as assuming the fraudsters were professionals in a sense, i.e. doing it in an organized way. Wouldn't those kinds of criminals try to keep it looking clean?


Some states have "alcohol-exclusion laws" which make it possible for insurers to deny coverage if you had a car accident while intoxicated.

I guess that might be one explanation?




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