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Does the First Amendment preclude the US from imposing prohibitive taxes on media?

It'd be clearly unconstitutional to ban them outright; so, where and how's that line drawn?

late edit: I just want to note the text of POTUS' announcement includes this: "It is, in addition to everything else, messaging and propaganda!" The overtly expressed motive here is animus towards the content of the speech (not some content-neutral factor like trade balances).




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