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> Turns out, the vast majority of Chinese citizens with any means are interested in foreign products (like most people in the world).

Is there data that backs up this claim? Is this broadly the case? Cause I do know that local brands have been taking over foreign brands recently. Take for example Apple— sales in China plunged 50%, and reports are pointing at Huawei [1], which amongst other things has been making some impressive high-end phones. Tesla is falling to Chinese brands too [2].

Moreover, foreign brand != foreign product. Tesla manufactures in China, as does Apple, Louis Vuitton, etc.

But regardless of specific examples, I'd imagine the vast majority of consumption in China isn't products of foreign origin given its massive trade surplus [3] and just how much of what it imports are materials, rather than finished consumer goods [4].

[1]: https://www.asiafinancial.com/apple-sales-in-china-plunge-50...

[2]: https://carnewschina.com/2025/05/12/teslas-sales-in-china-do...

[3]: https://tradingeconomics.com/china/balance-of-trade

[4]: https://oec.world/en/profile/country/chn?selector343id=Impor...



> Moreover, foreign brand != foreign product. Tesla manufactures in China, as does Apple, Louis Vuitton, etc.

This has nothing to do with PPP, and the fact that you are making this argument means you have no idea what it consists of at all.

If Chinese citizens purchase those products, they don't get them at an adjusted price because they are manufactured in China. They pay the same base price as worldwide, else they buy them secondhand (or, more frequently, bootleg).

Your questions reinforce, rather than dismiss, why PPP is a useless metric outside of base domestic purchase economics (primarily rent and food).




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