Hm ... I wonder, is Grammarly also responsible for the flood of contraction of lexical "have" the last few years? It's standard in British English, but outside of poetry it is proscribed in almost all other dialects (which only permit contraction of auxiliary "have").
Even in British I'm not sure how widely they actually use it - do they say "I've a car" and "I haven't a car"?
In my experience "I've a car" is much more common than "I haven't a car" (I've never heard the latter construct used, but regularly hear the former in casual speech). "I haven't got a car" or "I've no car" would be relatively common though.
Even in British I'm not sure how widely they actually use it - do they say "I've a car" and "I haven't a car"?