This is either a tautology or meaningless, depending on semantics.

Q: Are there today, or have there ever been in history, any non-corrupt governments (that by your implication are invulnerable to lobbying)?

I’m pretty sure lobbying is a thing everywhere, regardless of corruption. People want the government to do stuff and will try to make it happen, from autocracies to direct democracies and everything in between.

Of course. Writing to your representative is you wanting the government to do something. There's nothing wrong with that. It's only when government is corrupt that it's a problem.

So you’re saying “lobbying can do something, even when the government is not corrupt”?

If so, then yes, that’s the point I was making, which refutes the statement that lobbying only does something if the government is corrupt. If not, then I’m confused, please help me understand what I’m missing.