You think the wealth inequality is set up to exploit poor people, but you don't think contributing to the wealth inequality is immoral.
That's an interesting position. I would guess that in order to square these two beliefs you either have to think exploiting the poor is moral (unlikely) or that individuals are not responsible for their personal contributions to the wealth inequality.
I'm interested to hear how you argue for this position. It's one I rarely see.
He's far from the only example.
I understand the distribution of wealth. I agree that in the US in particular it is setup to exploit poor people.
I don't think being rich is immoral.