Bugs Bunny called Elmer Fudd "Nimrod" in a 1940's cartoon to sarcastically refer to Elmer as a great hunter. At that time I think most people probably got the biblical reference. Over time that word morphed into meaning something like an idiot to most Americans due to that cartoon.
The same thing happened to the word "Acme" - the coyote in the road runner cartoons bought all his devices from the "Acme Corporation". Acme means the best/peak and it was a sarcastic reference to none of the gadgets ever working. Now most American's think Acme means generic/bad.
They should have kept the name as Nimrod and named the package manager Acme instead of Nimble.
That’s not true, at least in France. Perhaps it’s true in some other dialect, e.g. Quebec French; I don’t know.
From Wiktionary, the pronunciation of English bit is /bɪt/, and French bite is /bit/. The sounds represented in IPA by ɪ and i are not the same, which is precisely why “bit” and “beet” sound different to Americans.
It's pronounced the same only by people speaking English with a French accent. An American, Brit, Indian, or any other native speaker of English absolutely does not pronounce "bit" the same way a French person pronounces "une bite."
Rather than measuring whose French pedigree is longer, I will put down a wager on this. ₹3? :D
I don’t doubt that you speak French. French people tend to have difficulty distinguishing those sounds because they are not distinguished in French. In English, they are: English has a much larger inventory of distinct vowel sounds than French (or indeed most European languages). In typical French-accented English, “bit” is indeed pronounced like the French word “bite”, but in native speaker English, it is not.
I am a native speaker of American English and also speak French quite well. If you neither accept personal experience, nor what is written on Wiktionary, what evidence would you accept?
